Today I read another section of Analysis with an Introduction to Proof. This one was dedicated to proof techniques, and one of those made use of the tautology $[p\implies (q\lor r)]\equiv [(p\land \lnot q)\implies r]$. This is intuitive enough, but proofs that use it feel like cheating. For instance, to prove that if $x^2=2x$, then $x=0$ or $x=2$, you can assume that $x^2=2x$ and $x\neq0$, then prove that $x=2$. That’s it. Poof! Done! No showing that $0^2=2(0)$ required. I do not find this intuitive.
Leave a Reply to Olly Cancel reply